B.N.Fisk
1. Who said: "It is good for a man not to touch a woman?"
1.1.Paul shifts to address their letter
1.2.Paul probably summarizes the view of some in Corinth, cautiously agrees, but then qualifies it significantly (perhaps similar to his tactics in 8:1; 10:23)
2. What does "to touch a woman" mean?
Versions:NRSV/NASV/NEB: physical contact (?); NIV/TEV: marriage
Alternative: sexual contact/sexual relations/to touch (sexually)2.1. contrast is in verse 2: "not to touch" is opposed to "have"; cf. 5:1: "someone has his father's wife"
2.2. explains why Paul has "his own" wife/husband = sex belongs inside marriage
2.3. Gen.20:6; Prov 6:29 (same Greek word)
2.4. 7:3-4 are the commentary; 7:5 is the explicit command = stop depriving each other sexually
3. Does Paul commend celibacy?
Yes. See 7:7a (Paul himself is celibate; cf. 9:5), 7:8, 32-34. What are the practical advantages of celibacy?
Does our culture (and Christian subculture) discriminate against celibates?
4. How does Paul characterize sex within marriage? Four characteristics:
7:2 preventative- one purpose of marital sex: to prevent fornication (cf. 7:9)
7:3 reciprocal- works both ways (remarkable in its day)
7:4 interdependent- neither can claim authority over own body
7:5obligatory- each owes the other; sex is not optional; temporary periods of abstinence onlyNo mention in this context of love, of procreation or of clergy/laity distinctions.
5. Who are the `unmarried' (agamos) of 7:8-9?
5.1. any who are single (vs. widows)
5.2. men who are single (vs. women who are widowed) (cf. 7:32)
5.3. men who are widowed (= widowers = male counterpart to widows) (so Fee, Hays, Witherington)- cf. 7:11 where same word refers to those `de-married' through divorce
- 7:34 seems to contrast the `unmarried' with the `virgins' (= formerly married vs. never married?)
6. What options are available to the unmarried?
6.1. celibacy or (re-)marriage (to prevent burning with sexual passion)
6.2. excluded: fornication/premarital sex
7. Why does Paul say "not I but the Lord" (v.10)?
7.1. v.10 parallels Jesus' teaching in Matt 19:6 = No Divorce!
7.2. ref. in vv.10-11 is thus not to `separation' (while still married) but to `divorce'
7.3. separation or divorce--either way--Paul (like Jesus) says remarriage to another is out
7.4. is Paul assuming an exception for cases of sexual immorality (Matt 19)?
8. Why does Paul address "the rest" by remarking "I say, not the Lord" (v.12)?
8.1. v.12 addresses `mixed' marriages, a topic Jesus did not address (cf. 1 Pet.3:1-2)
8.2. Paul challenges those in Corinth who wanted to dissolve mixed marriages
9. How does Paul defend continuing in mixed marriages?
9.1. unbelieving spouse is `sanctified'
9.2. children are `holy'- not promises/prophecies/guarantees, nor a recommendation to enter into a mixed marriage (7:39; 2 Cor.6:14), but expressions of hope that God's grace will work to save and transform one's partner/children